HIV INFECTION AND AIDS (ACQUIRED IMMUNODEFICIENCY SYNDROME)
HIV INFECTION AND AIDS (ACQUIRED IMMUNODEFICIENCY SYNDROME) MCQs
HIV INFECTION AND AIDS (ACQUIRED IMMUNODEFICIENCY SYNDROME) Quiz/ Test
Results
PASS
WELL DONE
KEEP IT UP
FAIL
REVISE AGAIN
WORK HARD
#1. Which of the following is NOT a route of HIV transmission? ? HIV is not transmitted via mosquitoes, casual contact, or fomites.
HIV is not transmitted via mosquitoes, casual contact, or fomites.
#2. Which pathogen causes IRIS (immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome) after HAART initiation? ? CMV retinitis (hemorrhages + exudates) occurs in advanced AIDS and requires urgent ganciclovir.
CMV retinitis (hemorrhages + exudates) occurs in advanced AIDS and requires urgent ganciclovir.
#3. A healthcare worker sustains a needlestick injury from an HIV-positive patient. What is the estimated risk of transmission? ? Percutaneous HIV exposure (e.g., needlestick) carries a 0.3% risk, but proper PEP reduces this further.
Percutaneous HIV exposure (e.g., needlestick) carries a 0.3% risk, but proper PEP reduces this further.
#4. A 30-year-old man presents with fever, fatigue, and a maculopapular rash. He reports unprotected sex 3 weeks ago. HIV RNA PCR is positive, but ELISA is negative. What is the most likely stage of his infection? ? Acute retroviral syndrome occurs 2–4 weeks post-exposure, with flu-like symptoms and detectable HIV RNA before antibody seroconversion (ELISA negative).
Acute retroviral syndrome occurs 2–4 weeks post-exposure, with flu-like symptoms and detectable HIV RNA before antibody seroconversion (ELISA negative).
#5. A newborn’s mother has untreated HIV. Which intervention is most effective in reducing vertical transmission? ? Maternal HAART (started early in pregnancy) reduces vertical transmission risk to <1%. Zidovudine alone is less effective.
Maternal HAART (started early in pregnancy) reduces vertical transmission risk to <1%. Zidovudine alone is less effective.
#6. Which HIV type is most prevalent globally? ? HIV-1 accounts for 95% of global cases; HIV-2 is less virulent and endemic in West Africa.
HIV-1 accounts for 95% of global cases; HIV-2 is less virulent and endemic in West Africa.
#7. A patient with HIV and CD4 <50/mm³ presents with vision loss. Fundoscopy shows "cottage cheese and ketchup" retinopathy. What is the diagnosis? ? CMV retinitis (hemorrhages + exudates) occurs in advanced AIDS and requires urgent ganciclovir.
CMV retinitis (hemorrhages + exudates) occurs in advanced AIDS and requires urgent ganciclovir.
#8. At what CD4 count is Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP) prophylaxis recommended? ? PCP prophylaxis (e.g., trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole) is initiated at CD4 <200/mm³.
PCP prophylaxis (e.g., trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole) is initiated at CD4 <200/mm³.
#9. What is the “window period” in HIV testing? ? he window period (typically 3–12 weeks) is the time between HIV infection and detectable antibodies (ELISA/Western blot). PCR detects HIV earlier.
The window period (typically 3–12 weeks) is the time between HIV infection and detectable antibodies (ELISA/Western blot). PCR detects HIV earlier.
#10. Which test is used to confirm HIV diagnosis after a positive ELISA screening? ? Western blot is the gold-standard confirmatory test, detecting HIV-specific antibodies (e.g., anti-gp41, anti-p24).
Western blot is the gold-standard confirmatory test, detecting HIV-specific antibodies (e.g., anti-gp41, anti-p24).
#11. A patient with HIV and CD4 <100/mm³ develops dysphagia and white oral plaques. What is the treatment? ? Oral/esophageal candidiasis (thrush) is treated with fluconazole.
Oral/esophageal candidiasis (thrush) is treated with fluconazole.
#12. Which antiretroviral drug is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)? ? Tenofovir is an NRTI. Efavirenz/nevirapine are NNRTIs; ritonavir is a protease inhibitor; dolutegravir is an integrase inhibitor.
Tenofovir is an NRTI. Efavirenz/nevirapine are NNRTIs; ritonavir is a protease inhibitor; dolutegravir is an integrase inhibitor.
#13. A patient with HIV and a CD4 count of 80/mm³ presents with multiple purple skin nodules. What is the most likely diagnosis? ? Kaposi’s sarcoma (HHV-8-associated) presents as violaceous nodules in advanced HIV (CD4 <200/mm³).
Kaposi’s sarcoma (HHV-8-associated) presents as violaceous nodules in advanced HIV (CD4 <200/mm³).
#14. Which test measures HIV RNA to monitor treatment response? ? Viral load (PCR) quantifies HIV RNA copies/mL, guiding HAART efficacy.
Viral load (PCR) quantifies HIV RNA copies/mL, guiding HAART efficacy.
#15. Which drug is used for post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) after HIV exposure? ? PEP requires 28 days of HAART (e.g., tenofovir + emtricitabine + raltegravir).
PEP requires 28 days of HAART (e.g., tenofovir + emtricitabine + raltegravir).
#16. Which cell surface receptor does HIV primarily target for entry into host cells? ? HIV binds to CD4 receptors on T-helper cells via its gp120 envelope protein, followed by co-receptor (CCR5/CXCR4) interaction.
HIV binds to CD4 receptors on T-helper cells via its gp120 envelope protein, followed by co-receptor (CCR5/CXCR4) interaction.